Continuing on Aristotle's Metaphysics, book 1, ch. 9. Why does Aristotle insist that Forms have to be in objects, contra Plato? What would it mean for the Forms to be mathematical objects per the Pythagoreans' view?
Read along with us starting on p. 23.
At some point we'll return to Aristotle's take on Plato's forms via his treatment later in the look, but this is enough of Chapter 9!
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